Originally Posted by
dwhitehorne
Deadly Force and use of force are clearly defined by the Supreme Court for Law Enforcement. Not necessarily for private citizens. One thing the courts look at on a case by case is the “ability-opportunity-intent” portion of the case.
That really isn't correct, the intent of the person doing/threatening the harm isn't at issue in most cases, rather it is the reasonableness of the other's perception of their jeopardy.
Absent an overt move to use force, it is difficult to establish a reasonable perception of jeopardy.
As an example, a person matching the description of a robbery suspect is told to stand with their hands in the air and not move. Suddenly they feel a sneeze coming on, without thinking they rapidly drop their hand to their rear pocket to get a handkerchief with the idea of stifling their sneeze. Their intent was clearly not to harm the other person, but in the totality of the circumstances is it possible such a move might be reasonably regarded as a move to harm the other person?
As in most of these cases it depends on whether you are buying or selling. The correct course to take is one that determines how another person, having the same knowledge would have viewed the events without going overboard one way or the other.
Patriotism means to stand by the country. It does not mean to stand by the President... - Theodore Roosevelt, Lincoln and Free Speech, Metropolitan Magazine, Volume 47, Number 6, May 1918.
Every Communist must grasp the truth. Political power grows out of the barrel of a gun. Our principle is that the Party commands the gun, and the gun must never be allowed to command the Party Mao Zedong, 6 November, 1938 - speech to the Communist Patry of China's sixth Central Committee
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